tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post2150326457904775537..comments2023-06-01T14:08:49.977+00:00Comments on Confessions of a Doubting Thomas: OT prophecies of the Messiah...Unknownnoreply@blogger.comBlogger11125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-39059928073034523302012-03-03T01:06:13.642+00:002012-03-03T01:06:13.642+00:00I've not ignored these comments. I've just...I've not ignored these comments. I've just been really busy the past couple of weeks. I'll get to them...Ricky Carvelhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/17975085318645232701noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-25519008398641911272012-02-15T16:34:33.907+00:002012-02-15T16:34:33.907+00:00About Zechariah 13:7
"Awake, O sword, agains...About Zechariah 13:7<br /><br />"Awake, O sword, against My Shepherd, And against the man, My Associate," Declares YAHWEH of hosts. "Strike the Shepherd that the sheep may be scattered; And I will turn My hand against the little ones."<br /><br />The Hebre word translated as my associate/my fellow/partner/my friend is,I think,bidi:<br /><br />It means equality,like a social equal,someobdy at your level,your position.<br /><br />Notice Yahweh says the man is his equal,in what sense we dont know.Now what man,a man, can be the equal to God in any sens,in power?In knowledge?In wisdom?etc.<br /><br />That is why it is about Jesus and yes,his death.minoriahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08030653596590889158noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-77638404567408236712012-02-15T16:28:12.692+00:002012-02-15T16:28:12.692+00:00As for Mark 12:35-37 there Jesus uses a common Jew...As for Mark 12:35-37 there Jesus uses a common Jewish technique found in the Talmud and used all the time by Jewish teachers.<br /><br />He answers a statement or question with a question.<br /><br />WHY DO YOU CALL ME GOOD?<br /><br />In Mark a man calls him good and Jesus says:<br /><br />"Why do you call me good?<br /><br />There is none good but God".<br /><br />He is saying:"Define the word Good".That way of speaking is the Talmudic technique,also called the Socratic method.Define your terms,concepts,words.<br /><br />And he says only God is good,but doesn`t say he is not God.<br /><br />So Jesus wanted his audience to think about the passage.He does not deny the Messiah would be a descendant of David,that point is important.<br /><br />But he points out that,in the form of a question,to make them think.The passage is showing the Messiah as already existing,how can he be David's son then?<br /><br />He has to be more than just a human being in the future,if he already existed in David's time.<br /><br />But certainly Jesus knew all the passages about the Davidic Messiah and he would not have denied them.minoriahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08030653596590889158noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-18561416294335615922012-02-15T16:27:40.941+00:002012-02-15T16:27:40.941+00:00As for Mark 12:35-37 there Jesus uses a common Jew...As for Mark 12:35-37 there Jesus uses a common Jewish technique found in the Talmud and used all the time by Jewish teachers.<br /><br />He answers a statement or question with a question.<br /><br />WHY DO YOU CALL ME GOOD?<br /><br />In Mark a man calls him good and Jesus says:<br /><br />"Why do you call me good?<br /><br />There is none good but God".<br /><br />He is saying:"Define the word Good".That way of speaking is the Talmudic technique,also called the Socratic method.Define your terms,concepts,words.<br /><br />And he says only God is good,but doesn`t say he is not God.<br /><br />So Jesus wanted his audience to think about the passage.He does not deny the Messiah would be a descendant of David,that point is important.<br /><br />But he points out that,in the form of a question,to make them think.The passage is showing the Messiah as already existing,how can he be David's son then?<br /><br />He has to be more than just a human being in the future,if he already existed in David's time.<br /><br />But certainly jesus knew all the passages about the Davidic Messiah and he would not have denied them.minoriahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08030653596590889158noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-80916767824933624392012-02-15T16:19:37.002+00:002012-02-15T16:19:37.002+00:00Hello,
About Psalms 72:10-11/2:7-8/35:19/41:9/35:...Hello,<br /><br />About Psalms 72:10-11/2:7-8/35:19/41:9/35:11/Psalm 22/69:21/16:10/49:15,they are not really Messianic.<br /><br />The auhtor uses Midrash.That is he sees a parallel with a real event and points to it.<br /><br />A MODERN EXAMPLE<br /><br />In 1948 80,000 Jews were kicked out of Egypt.A religious Orthodox Jew could says,knowing it is just a parallelism,using Midrash,"Thus happened what is written,or given as a message(a prophecy) in Hosea11:1:<br /><br />"Out of Eqypt I will call out my son(the Jewish people)".<br /><br />Hosea refers to Moses and the Jews of Pharaoh's time,but an Orthodox Jew would see a parallelism.minoriahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08030653596590889158noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-1738103917404545142012-02-14T16:00:52.190+00:002012-02-14T16:00:52.190+00:00Hello,
I want to refer a bit to Gen 49:10 again.F...Hello,<br /><br />I want to refer a bit to Gen 49:10 again.From Josephus and archeological evidence we know that the only exception to the Jews not being able to apply capital punishment was if a Gentile enterd the Temple,an inscription with that law has been found in Jerusalem.<br /><br />If one wants to argue that that means the scepter was still with the Jews,then ok.<br /><br />But in 70 AD the Romans destroyed Jerusalem and the Temple,so all remaining Jewish authority was destroyed,but Jesus had appeared way before 70 AD.<br /><br />ABOUT DANIEL 9<br /><br />There are different dates for the starting time,587 BC,538 BC,456 BC,445 BC.<br /><br />If you say the Jewish year was in effect 365 days,and I think it is correct,then Jesus was killed before all those dates except 445 BC.<br /><br />But as the documentary evidence shows the Jews in 1st century Palestine were expecting the Davidic Messiah then,the only logical reason is they saw Daniel 9as being about him.<br /><br />ABOUT ISAIAH 7<br /><br />In Islam nobody has as their name God is Great/Allah-u-Akbar,since that would mean the man is saying he is God.<br /><br />And no Muslim would have as his name "Allah is with us".But in Judaism it is ok,one can be Immanuel/God is with us.<br /><br />But in Judaism nobody can be named using the complete name of God,Yahweh,and be called Yahweh this or Yahweh that.<br /><br />It is saying he is Yahweh,literally God.The equivalent of a Muslim saying,my name is "Allah-u-Akbar",he is saying he is Allah.<br /><br />But Jeremiah says the Davidic Messiah will be Yahweh Tsidkenu,Yahweh is our righteousness.<br /><br />So Matthew saw a parallel,a midrashic parallel between the 2 prophecies and said so.Midrash is used in the Talmud alot of times.Matthew saw:<br /><br />"The Davidic Messia=Yahweh"<br /><br />"A young woman will have a son called "God is with us"."<br /><br />Looking at Daniel 9,since an anointed one/messiah is killed then how is he going to bring peace and justice if he is dead?The only answer is through resurrection,it is implied,when you consider the other prophecies.minoriahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08030653596590889158noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-32860570833304625272012-02-14T15:59:41.248+00:002012-02-14T15:59:41.248+00:00Hello,
I want to refer a bit to Gen 49:10 again.F...Hello,<br /><br />I want to refer a bit to Gen 49:10 again.From Josephus and archeological evidence we know that the only exception to the Jews not being able to apply capital punishment was if a Gentile enterd the Temple,an inscription with that law has been found in Jerusalem.<br /><br />If one wants to argue that that means the scepter was still with the Jews,then ok.<br /><br />But in 70 AD the Romans destroyed Jerusalem and the Temple,so all remaining Jewish authority was destroyed,but Jesus had appeared way before 70 AD.<br /><br />ABOUT DANIEL 9<br /><br />There are different dates for the starting time,587 BC,538 BC,456 BC,445 BC.<br /><br />If you say the Jewish year was in effect 365 days,and I think it is correct,then Jesus was killed before all those dates except 445 BC.<br /><br />But as the documentary evidence shows the Jews in 1st century Palestine were expecting the Davidic Messiah then,the only logical reason is they saw Daniel 9as being about him.<br /><br />ABOUT ISAIAH 7<br /><br />In Islam nobody has as their name God is Great/Allah-u-Akbar,since that would mean the man is saying he is God.<br /><br />And no Muslim would have as his name "Allah is with us".But in Judaism it is ok,one can be Immanuel/God is with us.<br /><br />But in Judaism nobody can be named using the complete name of God,Yahweh,and be called Yahweh this or Yahweh that.<br /><br />It is saying he is Yahweh,literally God.The equivalent of a Muslim saying,my name is "Allah-u-Akbar",he is saying he is Allah.<br /><br />But Jeremiah says the Davidic Messiah will be Yahweh Tsidkenu,Yahweh is our righteousness.<br /><br />So Matthew saw a parallel,a midrashic parallel between the 2 prophecies and said so.Midrash is used in the Talmud alot of times.Matthew saw:<br /><br />"The Davidic Messia=Yahweh"<br /><br />"A young woman will have a son called "God is with us"."<br /><br />Looking at Daniel 9,since an anointed one/messiah is killed then how is he going to bring peace and justice if he is dead?The only answer is through resurrection,it is implied,when you consider the other prophecies.minoriahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08030653596590889158noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-25884228020361215222012-02-14T15:59:18.739+00:002012-02-14T15:59:18.739+00:00Hello,
I want to refer a bit to Gen 49:10 again.F...Hello,<br /><br />I want to refer a bit to Gen 49:10 again.From Josephus and archeological evidence we know that the only exception to the Jews not being able to apply capital punishment was if a Gentile enterd the Temple,an inscription with that law has been found in Jerusalem.<br /><br />If one wants to argue that that means the scepter was still with the Jews,then ok.<br /><br />But in 70 AD the Romans destroyed Jerusalem and the Temple,so all remaining Jewish authority was destroyed,but Jesus had appeared way before 70 AD.<br /><br />ABOUT DANIEL 9<br /><br />There are different dates for the starting time,587 BC,538 BC,456 BC,445 BC.<br /><br />If you say the Jewish year was in effect 365 days,and I think it is correct,then Jesus was killed before all those dates except 445 BC.<br /><br />But as the documentary evidence shows the Jews in 1st century Palestine were expecting the Davidic Messiah then,the only logical reason is they saw Daniel 9as being about him.<br /><br />ABOUT ISAIAH 7<br /><br />In Islam nobody has as their name God is Great/Allah-u-Akbar,since that would mean the man is saying he is God.<br /><br />And no Muslim would have as his name "Allah is with us".But in Judaism it is ok,one can be Immanuel/God is with us.<br /><br />But in Judaism nobody can be named using the complete name of God,Yahweh,and be called Yahweh this or Yahweh that.<br /><br />It is saying he is Yahweh,literally God.The equivalent of a Muslim saying,my name is "Allah-u-Akbar",he is saying he is Allah.<br /><br />But Jeremiah says the Davidic Messiah will be Yahweh Tsidkenu,Yahweh is our righteousness.<br /><br />So Matthew saw a parallel,a midrashic parallel between the 2 prophecies and said so.Midrash is used in the Talmud alot of times.Matthew saw:<br /><br />"The Davidic Messia=Yahweh"<br /><br />"A young woman will have a son called "God is with us"."<br /><br />Looking at Daniel 9,since an anointed one/messiah is killed then how is he going to bring peace and justice if he is dead?The only answer is through resurrection,it is implied,when you consider the other prophecies.minoriahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08030653596590889158noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-33279933332322939992012-02-13T20:28:12.124+00:002012-02-13T20:28:12.124+00:00I forgot to add the Frech article:
http://www.avr...I forgot to add the Frech article:<br /><br />http://www.avraidire.com/2010/12/la-nouvelle-alliance-de-jesus-prophetisee-deux-fois-dans-lancien-testament/minoriahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08030653596590889158noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-24900687472949654002012-02-13T20:27:04.102+00:002012-02-13T20:27:04.102+00:00When one studies Islam one sees it boils down to t...When one studies Islam one sees it boils down to this:<br /><br />It is just the word of one man,that literally all his revelations are from him,Muhammad.That is bad.<br /><br /><b>What would a religious Jew say?</b><br /><br />I always try to place myself in their mentality.He would say:<br /><br />1.God made sure the Messianic prophecies were never given in totality to just one man.<br /><br />2.Otherwise how can you tell if that one man,just one man was not tricked by the Devil,like Muhammad?<br /><br />3.He gave a portion here to one guy and hundreds of years later to another guy,etc.That way you can't say it came from one demon,and that way you can't say it is just a coincidence.<br /><br /><b>About other prophecies</b><br /><br />As a said before,each gives only a portion.In the article in French here,which can be translated using Google Translate it has about:<br /><br />Isaiah 42:1-6:<br /><br />It says a holy man will establish a berit/alliance with the nations,the non-Jews.<br /><br />Also verse four says,about the holy man:<br /><br />"And for <b>his law</b> isles wait with hope."<br /><br />It also says <br /><br />And Jeremiah 31:31-36 actually says "new berit(alliance)" which will be different from the one given to Moses,Mosaic Law.<br /><br />Here we have specifics,we know Isaiah 42 is about the Messiah because it says he will rule the world:<br /><br />"and he will bring justice to the nations...... <br />In faithfulness he will bring forth justice; he will not falter or be discouraged <br />till he establishes justice on earth."<br /><br />Any religious Jew will say tha detail shows it is about the Messiah.<br /><br />So Jeremiah was given a detail,a new berit/alliance would come.<br /><br />Isaiah was told of an alliance with the Gentiles by the Messiah,it coincides with the NT claim.minoriahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08030653596590889158noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-20930767.post-32563521874822023782012-02-13T20:07:21.518+00:002012-02-13T20:07:21.518+00:00Regarding:
Genesis 49:10
“The scepter will not d...Regarding:<br /><br />Genesis 49:10<br /><br />“The scepter will not depart from Judah, nor the ruler’s staff from his descendants, until the coming of the one to whom it belongs, the one whom all nations will obey.” <br /><br />The way you stated it is not the way it is understood. <br /><br />In 6 AD the Romans took away from the Jews the right,except in 1 case,to apply the death sentence.<br /><br />In other words they lost practically all authority.Jesus had already been born then,the Messiah had arrived so the prophecy became true.The Messiah came before the scepter was taken away.<br /><br />When the Jews were taken to Babylon they still had the right to their judicial court which applied Mosaic law,it continued under the Seleucids,the Hasmoneans,under the Romans till 6 AD.<br /><br /><br />It is the Talmud:<br /><br />(Talmud, Jerusalem Talmud, Sanhedrin, fol. 24, recto.) <br /><br /><br />"A little more than forty years before the destruction of the Temple, the power of pronouncing capital sentences was taken away from the Jews." (Talmud, Jerusalem, Sanhedrin, fol. 24, recto.) <br /><br />The Talmud (Babylonian Talmud., Sanhedrin, Chap. 4, fol. 51b) says, <br /><br />"Since the Sanhedrin no longer had jurisdiction in capital offenses, there is no practical utility in this ruling, which can become effective only in the days of the Messiah."minoriahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08030653596590889158noreply@blogger.com